Where is instrumental music authorized?
I have a friend whose dad has become a practicing Jew in recent years. He is now essentially a song leader in synagogue. The dad mentioned that the Jews do not use instrumental music in synagogue because it was only authorized by God for TEMPLE use.
I found this interesting. I know (per 2 Chron 29:25) that the Israelites were authorized to use mechanical instruments under the Mosaic regime, but I had never thought much about the LOCATION of such use. Not just anywhere, evidently–ONLY the temple (that is, only where God dwells).
If this is correct (and if you can think of counter examples, please share them), then it would suggest something intriguing for Eph 5:19 & 1 Cor 6:19,20. Today, God dwells in us (Christians). And, thus one could reason that God has STILL authorized “instrumental music” today in His “temple” in the sense that we are to make melody to the Lord IN OUR HEARTS (i.e., His dwelling place)!
I don’t know if this is of any value, but it was a “new thought” for me at least. Feel free to help me ascertain if it is correct or not! :)
Russ McCullough 10:45 pm on April 9, 2012 Permalink |
You are dead on. The instrument was always associated with the act of animal sacrifice at the tabernacle / temple. Since Christ was the perfect sacrifice, once and for all….no more sacrifice…not more instrumental music. The synagogue model was endorsed and embraced by Christ Himself and served as a worship model in the NT. That model (pattern) is still in effect today. In reality, the addition of the instrument today calls into question the finality of Christ’s sacrifice. Pretty scary….
Terry 10:48 pm on April 9, 2012 Permalink |
I’m not advocating instrumental music, but to answer your question, in 2 Samuel 6, specifically verse 5, the ark was being brought up to Jerusalem; the procession was accompanied by cymbals, harps, castanets, etc. even though it is not yet installed in the temple. (It’s probably worth noting the ark was being conveyed in a way that was not authorized by God; however, God doesn’t condemn the music, only the manner in which Uzzah reached out to keep it from falling.) Coincidentally, I recently blogged on this topic and the upshot for me anyway is that I just don’t think we can “prove” our point with OT or NT commands. I love a cappella singing, and it is certainly not condemned by God but I choose to not argue this particular point with those who worship where instruments are used. I think we have bigger things to talk about :-)
Stephen R. Bradd 3:08 pm on April 10, 2012 Permalink |
Interesting point about 2 Sam 6. The touching of the ark was when Uzzah was punished; that we know for certain. We know the transporting on the cart was unauthorized (and the musical accompaniment may have been also). God tolerated certain things under the OT (cf. Acts 17:30); other things He did not tolerate.
Regarding your closing comments, I suspect Uzzah, Nadab, Abihu, Cain, etc. might think they had bigger things to talk about, too, than simply doing things in a way that cannot be wrong (in this discussion–a capella singing). Someone might argue that we have bigger things to talk about than immersion (“after all, the Bible doesn’t explicitly condemn sprinkling”–they might affirm). Let us not open the floodgates of human opinion. Let’s just strive to be fully pleasing the Lord always (Col. 1:10). Congregational singing (in spirit & truth) is pleasing to God. No one can know today if God is pleased when a piano is added; they may presume to know, but they cannot have any certainty about it (cf. Isa. 55:8,9). More significantly (in my view) is the fact that the brother who forces his presumptuous behavior into the assembly (which is what happened over 100 years ago) needlessly divides the body of Christ. Division is a sin condemned throughout Scripture; unity is commanded (1 Cor. 1:10). God is the judge, but I sure wouldn’t want to stand before Him (as our Christian church friends will) as one who initiated [or MAINTAINED] division over something they view as a matter of OPINION.
Ron Thomas 5:08 am on April 10, 2012 Permalink |
FWIW, Stephen, in the Jewish commentary I have there is no mention of an instrument authorized in one place and not another.
Stephen R. Bradd 12:17 pm on April 10, 2012 Permalink |
I understand Ron. I was relaying the perspective of at least one modern Jew, however (Nick’s father). There are some in the brotherhood who question whether instrumental music was EVER authorized under the OT. They believe David was an innovator and God merely tolerated such for the time being (like He did polygamy). But, I don’t believe those who argue such can deal properly with 2 Chr 29:25. That verse provides clear OT authority for instrumental accompaniment IN the temple. I know of no other verses that provide clear authority for the appropriateness of their use in any other location, however. There may be other examples of their use, but a record in the Bible of an account of action doesn’t intrinsically convey divine approval (e.g., OT polygamy)–though it does imply some level of tolerance on God’s part (cf. Acts 17:30).
Bottom line–this thread was something of interest to me. It doesn’t change anything regarding what we are authorized to do today in Christian worship. And that leads me now to reply to Terry…
Eugene Adkins 6:14 am on April 10, 2012 Permalink |
I had heard the samething about synagouge worship. Although I had never actually talked to a Jew about it. The only other thing that I can think of that someone may bring up would be the worship found in the Psalms. I know from time to time in the discussion of instrumental music/rock-n-roll during worship, some bring up the example of the Psalms.
Terry 9:05 am on April 11, 2012 Permalink |
Stephen, we’re mostly in agreement. However, it is evident – to us today anyway – that those you mentioned clearly violated a mandate set out by God and likewise God also gives us clear examples of baptism, from the manner in which Christ was baptized (albeit for different reasons) to the multitude of examples of immersion in Acts.. My point on instrumental music is that we can’t “prove” this point with scripture. We can certainly make the case for a capella being pleasing to God and conforming to passages that refer to singing. But I believe we start down the slippery slope of human opinion into a quagmire of legalism when we try to make scripture’s silence say something it doesn’t. If an acquaintance or friend worships where mechanical instruments are present, I’d rather use my influence to explore issues such as obedience to the will of God and how to worship Him in spirit and truth and let them wrestle with their conscience on whether they can do that with mechanical musical accompaniment. I agree I don’t want to stand in judgment for causing any division. Members of our own brotherhood have divided over issues such as one-cup communion, eating in the church building, using modern music, supporting orphanages, etc. All of them felt their position was grounded in scripture too. Thanks for an interesting discussion, and I hope you have a blessed week.
John Henson 11:05 pm on April 15, 2012 Permalink |
For the last two weeks, I’ve been studying this and cannot find any proof that God authorized instruments. There is some evidence that the use of stringed instruments was a custom in idol temples. I’m wondering if David added the practice since idolaters were doing it and he wanted his worship to be like the other nations.
Stephen R. Bradd 6:06 am on April 16, 2012 Permalink |
Hi John. Admittedly, many passages seem to suggest they may have been an innovation of David. But, 2 Chronicles 29:25 removes all doubt, I think, about their divine authorization (at least in the tabernacle/temple)–”And he stationed the Levites in the house of the Lord with cymbals, with stringed instruments, and with harps, according to the commandment of David, of Gad the king’s seer, and of Nathan the prophet; for THUS WAS THE COMMANDMENT OF THE LORD [emp. added] by His prophets.”