I have a friend whose dad has become a practicing Jew in recent years. He is now essentially a song leader in synagogue. The dad mentioned that the Jews do not use instrumental music in synagogue because it was only authorized by God for TEMPLE use.
I found this interesting. I know (per 2 Chron 29:25) that the Israelites were authorized to use mechanical instruments under the Mosaic regime, but I had never thought much about the LOCATION of such use. Not just anywhere, evidently–ONLY the temple (that is, only where God dwells).
If this is correct (and if you can think of counter examples, please share them), then it would suggest something intriguing for Eph 5:19 & 1 Cor 6:19,20. Today, God dwells in us (Christians). And, thus one could reason that God has STILL authorized “instrumental music” today in His “temple” in the sense that we are to make melody to the Lord IN OUR HEARTS (i.e., His dwelling place)!
I don’t know if this is of any value, but it was a “new thought” for me at least. Feel free to help me ascertain if it is correct or not! :)